ISQI CTFL_Syll2018 Dumps Updated Oct 25, 2023 WIith 355 Questions
View All CTFL_Syll2018 Actual Free Exam Questions Oct 25, 2023 Updated
The ISQI CTFL_Syll2018 exam covers a wide range of topics, including testing fundamentals, test design, test execution, defect management, and test management. The CTFL_Syll2018 exam is based on the ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus, which is considered the de facto standard for software testing professionals worldwide. Passing CTFL_Syll2018 exam demonstrates that the individual understands the basic principles and concepts of software testing, which is crucial for ensuring high-quality software and applications.
The CTFL_Syll2018 exam is an essential certification for individuals who are interested in pursuing a career in software testing. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) certification is globally recognized and highly valued by employers, and it provides individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge to perform software testing at an entry-level. With the help of various online resources and accredited training providers, candidates can prepare for the exam and increase their chances of passing.
NEW QUESTION # 166
Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code
using a tool?
- A. A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects
- B. Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can
- C. A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures
- D. Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 167
An issue has been found in a production system, where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect during Performance testing?
- A. Dynamic analysis tool.
- B. Coverage measurement tool.
- C. Test Execution tool.
- D. Configuration management tool.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the syllabus, dynamic analysis tools are tools that perform testing or analysis by executing the software or a part of it. Dynamic analysis tools can help detect defects or problems that only appear during runtime, such as memory leaks, performance issues, concurrency errors, etc. The answer A is correct because it suggests using a dynamic analysis tool for detecting a memory leak during performance testing. A memory leak is a situation where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it, causing memory exhaustion and degradation of performance. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the memory usage of the code component and identify any memory leaks. The other answers are incorrect because they suggest using tools that are not suitable for detecting memory leaks during performance testing. A test execution tool is a tool that executes test cases automatically or semi-automatically. A configuration management tool is a tool that controls and tracks changes to the software components and documentation. A coverage measurement tool is a tool that measures how much of the code or functionality has been exercised by a test suite.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 4.6.1, page 53-54.
NEW QUESTION # 168
When should component integration tests be carried out?
- A. Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests
- B. Integration tests should always be done before system tests
- C. Integration tests can be done before or after system tests
- D. Integration tests should always be done after system tests
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 169
After a record of poor quality software releases (incorrect menu selection options, new features that do not
work, users allowed to change security levels without administrator rights), you have been asked to review the
test capability in your company.
You have limited time to do the review before the next project, which type of testing would be MOST
appropriate to review first?
- A. Performance testing.
- B. Functional testing.
- C. Structural testing.
- D. Non-functional testing.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 170
Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is
required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only
create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the
software
a. Create an invoice
b. Amend an invoice
c. Process an invoice (send to customer)
d. Delete an invoice
e. Create an account
f. Create an account user
g. Amend an account user
h. Delete an account user
i. Amend an account
j. Delete an account
Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run? [K3]
- A. f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h
- B. e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j
- C. e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j
- D. f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]
- A. Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards
- B. Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code
- C. Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code
- D. Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 172
Which statement about deriving test cases from a use case is TRUE?
- A. Test cases are designed to exercise the defined behaviours.
- B. There should only be one test case for each use case.
- C. Test cases can only be derived if there is an activity diagram.
- D. It is not possible to measure use case test coverage.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 173
Which of the following is a key difference between black box and white box test design techniques?
- A. White box techniques can measure the extent of code coverage, black box techniques can not.
- B. White box techniques use functional design specifications to derive test cases, black box techniques do
not. - C. White box techniques derive test cases from models of the software, black box techniques do not.
- D. Black box techniques use software code to derive test cases, white box techniques do not.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 174
Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?
- A. Expected results and actual results
- B. The version(s) of the software under test
- C. Precise steps to reproduce the problem
- D. The test execution schedule
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 175
A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades. The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:
Above 89. up to 100 - A
Above 79. up to 89 - B
Above 69. up to 79 - C
Above 59. up to 69 - D Below 60 - F
Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?
- A. 69, 79, 80, 89, 90
- B. 74, 79, 84, 85, 89
- C. 79,89,90,99,100
- D. 0, 58, 59, 70, 80
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B, as it achieves the highest equivalence partition coverage. Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test technique that divides the input domain into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived1. In this case, the input domain is the numerical grades, and the partitions are the ranges of grades that correspond to different letter grades. Option B covers all five partitions, as it includes test inputs from each range. Option A covers only four partitions, as it does not include any test input from the range above 89. Option C covers only three partitions, as it does not include any test input from the ranges above 79 and below 60. Option D covers only two partitions, as it does not include any test input from the ranges below
79. References: 1, Section 4.2.3
NEW QUESTION # 176
Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)?
- A. Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.
- B. Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.
- C. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities
- D. Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 177
Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?
- A. Error, fault, failure
- B. Mistake, failure, fault
- C. Failure, bug, error
- D. Fault, bug, mistake
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Error, fault, failure is the option that describes the causal chain in the correct sequence1 . The causal chain is a model that explains how defects are introduced and manifested in software1 . An error is a human action or decision that produces an incorrect result1 . A fault is a defect in the software caused by an error1 . A failure is an incorrect behaviour of the software caused by a fault1 . The other options do not describe the causal chain in the correct sequence. Option B uses synonyms for error (mistake), fault (bug), and failure (defect), but does not follow the correct order. Option C uses synonyms for error (mistake) and fault (failure), but does not follow the correct order and confuses fault with failure. Option D uses synonyms for fault (bug) and error (error), but does not follow the correct order and confuses failure with error.
NEW QUESTION # 178 
In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?
- A. Event D from S4
- B. Event E from S4
- C. Event C from S3
- D. Event B from S2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Event B from S2 is an invalid transition, because it does not exist in the state table. The state table shows the possible transitions between states based on events. For each state, there is a corresponding row that indicates the next state for each event. For example, for state S1, the next state for event A is S2, for event B is S3, and so on. However, for state S2, there is no next state for event B, which means that this transition is invalid
NEW QUESTION # 179
Which of the following test types are non-functional tests?
I) Acceptance test
II) Regression test
III) Stress test
IV) Component test
V) Reliability test
- A. II. Ill and V
- B. I, III and V
- C. III and V
- D. I.II and IV
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 180
The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The diagram lists various types of operating systems (LNX, W2K, WSP), databases (ORA, MSQ, SQL), and application servers (JBS, WSP) supported by the application under test. To test all possible combinations of these types, we need to multiply the number of options in each category. In this case, we have:
3 options for operating systems
3 options for databases
2 options for application servers
Therefore, we have 3 x 3 x 2 = 18 possible combinations to test.
However, if we look closely at the diagram, we can see that some combinations are not valid or feasible because they are not connected by lines. For example, we cannot test LNX with WSP as an application server because there is no line between them. Similarly, we cannot test W2K with JBS as an application server because there is no line between them. Therefore, we need to exclude these invalid combinations from our calculation.
If we count only the valid combinations that are connected by lines in the diagram, we get:
5 combinations for LNX (LNX-ORA-JBS, LNX-ORA-WSP, LNX-MSQ-JBS, LNX-MSQ-WSP, LNX-SQL-JBS)
5 combinations for W2K (W2K-ORA-WSP, W2K-MSQ-WSP, W2K-SQL-WSP)
5 combinations for WSP (WSP-ORA-JBS, WSP-ORA-WSP, WSP-MSQ-JBS, WSP-MSQ-WSP) Therefore, we have 5 + 5 + 5 = 15 valid combinations to test.
You can find more information about testing combinations in Software Testing Foundations: A Study Guide for the Certified Tester Exam, Chapter 4, Section 4.22.
NEW QUESTION # 181
When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques
should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?
- A. statement coverage
- B. use case testing
- C. decision table
- D. multiple condition coverage
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 182
Which ONE of the following is the BEST way to take advantage of the different mindsets of testers and developers?
- A. Keep developers and testers in separate teams.
- B. Bring the two mindsets together.
- C. Insist on independent testing at all stages in the lifecycle.
- D. Have all developers undergo ISTQB training.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to take advantage of the different mindsets of testers and developers is to bring the two mindsets together. Testers and developers have different perspectives and skills that can complement each other and improve the quality of the software. Testers tend to focus on finding defects and verifying the software against the requirements and specifications, while developers tend to focus on creating and implementing the software according to the design and architecture. By collaborating and communicating with each other, testers and developers can share their knowledge, feedback, and ideas, and resolve issues more efficiently and effectively.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 2.2
NEW QUESTION # 183
Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]
- A. Independence from the production process
- B. Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program
- C. Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage
- D. A belief that programmers always make mistakes
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 184
Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: "An Integer numeric field shall contain values from 1 to 80 both values inclusive"
- A. Less than 0. 1 to 79, 80 and more than 80
- B. Less than 1. 1 to 80, more than 80
- C. Less than 1. 1 to 79, more than 80
- D. Less than 0. 1 to 80, more than 80
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Less than 0, 1 to 80, more than 80 is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: "An Integer numeric field shall contain values from 1 to 80 both values inclusive". Equivalence partitioning is a technique to divide the input domain into partitions that are expected to behave similarly or produce the same output. Each partition should have at least one representative value as a test case2 explains equivalence partitioning as follows:
Equivalence Partitioning (or Equivalence Class Partitioning) is an software testing technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In principle, test cases are designed to cover each partition at least once.
The fundamental concept of Equivalence Partitioning is that you can find more errors in a test case by using a representative value from an equivalence class than by using any other value from the class.
The input domain for this problem can be divided into three partitions: less than 0, 1 to 80, and more than 80.
The first and the last partitions are invalid, as they are outside the range of acceptable values for this field. The middle partition is valid, as it is within the range of acceptable values for this field.
A, C, and D are incorrect answers. A does not include 0 as an invalid partition. C does not include 0 as an invalid partition. D does not include 80 as a valid partition.
NEW QUESTION # 185
A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?
- A. Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress
- B. Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.
- C. Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers
- D. Review test plans and set up test environments.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 186
The following program part is given:
IF (condition A)
then DO B
END IF
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?
- A. 2 [>
- B. 0
- C. a very high number
- D. 1
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following is NOT a test control activity?
- A. Change the test schedule due to viability of a test environment
- B. Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan
- C. Re-prioritize tests because of time pressure
- D. Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them into a build
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Test control is a test management activity that involves making decisions based on information from test monitoring and test progress reporting. Test control activities include:
Re-prioritizing tests because of time pressure
Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment
Setting entry and exit criteria for test levels or test activities
Initiating corrective actions to resolve deviations from the test plan
Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan is not a test control activity, but rather a test planning activity. Test suspension and resumption criteria are used to define when to stop and resume testing in case of unforeseen events or issues that affect the test execution.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 2.4.2 and 2.4.3
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2] a. Each review has clear defined objectives b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process c. The right people for the review objective are involved d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement e. Management are not involved in the process at all f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
- A. b, c and f.
- B. d, e and g.
- C. a, f and g.
- D. a, c and d.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 189
In which development life cycle model is regression testing an increasingly important activity as the project progresses?
- A. V-model.
- B. Scrum.
- C. Waterfall.
- D. Progressive.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
In a Scrum development life cycle model, regression testing is an increasingly important activity as the project progresses. Scrum is an agile framework that follows an iterative and incremental approach to software development, where the software is delivered in small units called sprints. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs as expected after changes or modifications.
Regression testing is essential in Scrum, as new features or functionalities are added or modified in each sprint, which can introduce new defects or affect existing ones. Therefore, regression testing should be performed at the end of each sprint, as well as before releasing the software, to ensure that the software meets the quality standards and user expectations.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 5.3.2
NEW QUESTION # 190
Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test
level? [K1]
- A. At integration testing and system testing levels only
- B. At all test levels
- C. At the component test level only
- D. At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 191
......
To be eligible to take the CTFL_Syll2018 certification exam, candidates must have a basic understanding of software testing and development processes. It is recommended that candidates complete an accredited training course or self-study program to prepare for the exam. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) certification is valid for life and there are no prerequisites for taking the exam.
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