NCLEX-RN Dumps PDF New [2023] Ultimate Study Guide
NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps PDF Updated Dump from PracticeVCE Guaranteed Success
NCLEX-RN exam is a crucial step for RNs to obtain licensure in the United States. Passing the exam is a requirement to practice as an RN in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories. NCLEX-RN exam is offered year-round, and test-takers can schedule their exam at any time during the year. The cost of the exam varies by state and ranges from $200 to $500.
NEW QUESTION # 188
A client decided early in her pregnancy to breast-feed her first baby. She gave birth to a normal, full-term girl and is now progressing toward the establishment of successful lactation. To remove the baby from her breast, she should be instructed to:
- A. Gently pull the infant away
- B. Withdraw the breast from the infant's mouth
- C. Compress the areolar tissue until the infant drops the nipple from her mouth
- D. Insert a clean finger into the baby's mouth beside the nipple
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) In pulling the infant away from the breast without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (B) In pulling the breast away from the infant without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (C) Compressing the maternal tissue does not break the suction of the infant on the breast and can cause nipple trauma. (D) By inserting a finger into the infant's mouth beside the nipple, the lactating mother can break the suction and the nipple can be removed without trauma.
NEW QUESTION # 189
The nurse will be alert to the most potentially lifethreatening side effect associated with the administration of monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. This is:
- A. Tardive dyskinesia
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Oculogyric crisis
- D. Hypertensive crisis
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Oculogyric crisis, involuntary upward deviation and fixation of the eyeballs, is usually associated with either postencephalitic parkinsonian or drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). (B) Hypertensive crisis is a potentially life-threatening side effect. This may occur if the client ingests foods, beverages, or medications containing tyramine. (C) Orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure resulting from a rapid change of body position, can occur with the administration of antidepressants. (D) Tardive dyskinesia, characterized by slow, rhythmical, automatic or stereotyped muscular movements, usually is associated with the administration of certain antipsychotic medications.
NEW QUESTION # 190
When a client with pancreatitis is discharged, the nurse needs to teach him how to prevent another occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following statements would indicate he has an understanding of his disease?
- A. "I will not eat any raw or uncooked vegetables."
- B. "I will look into attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings."
- C. "I will limit my alcohol to one cocktail per day."
- D. "I will report any changes in bowel movements to my doctor."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Raw or uncooked vegetables are all right to eat postdischarge. (B) This client must avoid any alcohol intake. (C) The client displays awareness of the need to avoid alcohol. (D) This action would be pertinent only if fatty stools associated with chronic hepatitis were the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 191
The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, "My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me." The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be:
- A. "Let's play cards with some of the other clients to get your mind off your problems for now."
- B. "It will take a few weeks for you to feel better, so you need to be patient."
- C. "It concerns me that you feel so badly when you have so many positive things in your life."
- D. "You are telling me that you are feeling hopeless at this point?"
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This response does not acknowledge the client's feelings and may increase his feelings of guilt. (B) This response denotes false reassurance. (C) This response acknowledges the client's feelings and invites a response. (D) This response changes the subject and does not allow the client to talk about his feelings.
NEW QUESTION # 192
A pregnant client experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes. The first nursing action is to:
- A. Auscultate fetal heart rate
- B. Assess the client's respirations
- C. Notify the physician
- D. Transfer to delivery suite
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Immediately following membrane rupture, the fetus is at risk for complications, not necessarily the mother. (B) The physician is notified after the nurse completes an assessment of the mother's and fetus's conditions. (C) Rupture of membranes facilitates fetal descent. A potential complication is cord prolapse, which is assessed by auscultating fetal heart rate. (D) Rupture of membranes does not necessarily indicate readiness to deliver.
NEW QUESTION # 193
A mother continues to breast-feed her 3-month-old infant. She tells the nurse that over the past 3 days she has not been producing enough milk to satisfy the infant. The nurse advises the mother to do which of the following?
- A. "Provide supplements for the child between breastfeeding so you will have enough milk."
- B. "Wait 4 hours between feedings so that your breasts will fill up."
- C. "Nurse the child more frequently during this growth spurt."
- D. "Start the child on solid food."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Solid foods introduced before 4-6 months of age are not compatible with the abilities of the GI tract and the nutritional needs of the infant. (B) Production of milk is supply and demand. A common growth spurt occurs at 3 months of age, and more frequent nursing will increase the milk supply to satisfy the infant. (C) Supplementation will decrease the infant's appetite and in turn decrease the milk supply. When the infant nurses less often or with less vigor, the amount of milk produced decreases. (D) Rigid feeding schedules lead to a decreased milk supply, whereas frequent nursing signals the mother's body to produce a correspondingly increased amount of milk.
NEW QUESTION # 194
Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?
- A. Prolonged expiration
- B. Increased respiratory rate
- C. Wheezing on inspiration
- D. Circumoral cyanosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Wheezing occurs during expiration when air movement is impaired because of constricted edematous bronchial lumina. (B) Respirations are difficult, but the rate is frequently normal. (C) The circumoral area is usually pale. Cyanosis is not an early sign of hypoxia. (D) Expiration is prolonged because the alveoli are greatly distended and air trapping occurs.
NEW QUESTION # 195
The nurse instructs a pregnant client (G2P1) to rest in a side-lying position and avoid lying flat on her back.
The nurse explains that this is to avoid "vena caval syndrome," a condition which:
- A. Occurs when blood pressure increases sharply with changes in position
- B. May require medication if positioning does not help
- C. Is seen mainly in first pregnancies
- D. Results when blood flow from the extremities is blocked or slowed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Blood pressure changes are predominantly due to pressure of the gravid uterus. (B) Pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava decreases blood return from lower extremities. (C) Inferior vena cava syndrome is experienced in the latter months of pregnancy regardless of parity. (D) There are no medications useful in the treatment of interior vena cava syndrome; alleviating pressure by position changes is effective.
NEW QUESTION # 196
A 3-year-old child was hospitalized for acute laryngotracheobronchitis. During her hospitalization, the child was placed under an oxygen mist tent. The nurse's frequent monitoring of the child's temperature frightened her parents. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Checking the temperature will prevent febrile seizures.
- B. Monitoring the temperature prevents undue chilling.
- C. Taking the child's temperature can prevent airway obstruction.
- D. Rapid temperature elevations can occur in children.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A)
The refrigerated cool mist tent creates a cool, moist environment. The child as well as bedding and clothing may become dampened. Monitoring the temperature of the child will ensure warmth and prevent chilling. (B) Only a low-grade fever is expected in laryngotracheobronchitis. (C) Febrile seizures are not expected with the low-grade fever.
(D)
Inflammation of the mucosal lining in the respiratory tract can cause airway obstruction. However, monitoring the child's temperature would not prevent airway obstruction.
NEW QUESTION # 197
A 44-year-old female client is receiving external radiation to her scapula for metastasis of breast cancer.
Teaching related to skin care for the client would include which of the following?
- A. Teach her to cover broken skin in the treated area with a medicated ointment.
- B. Encourage her to avoid direct sunlight on the area being treated.
- C. Encourage her to wear a tight-fitting vest to support her scapula.
- D. Teach her to completely clean the skin to remove all ointments and markings after each treatment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) The skin in a treatment area should be rinsed with water and patted dry. Markings should be left intact, and the skin should not be scrubbed. (B) Clients should avoid putting any creams or lotions on the treated area. This could interfere with treatment. (C) Radiation therapy clients should wear loose-fitting clothes and avoid tight, irritating fabrics. (D) The area of skin being treated is sensitive to sunlight, and the client should take care to prevent sun damage by avoiding direct sunlight and covering the area when she is in the sun.
NEW QUESTION # 198
Which type of insulin can be administered by a continuous IV drip?
- A. NPH insulin
- B. Lente insulin
- C. Regular insulin
- D. Humulin N
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Humulin N cannot be administered IV. (B) NPH insulin cannot be administered IV. (C) Regular insulin is the only insulin that can be administered IV. (D) Lente insulin cannot be administered IV.
NEW QUESTION # 199
A male client is started on IV anticoagulant therapy with heparin. Which of the following laboratory studies will be ordered to monitor the therapeutic effects of heparin?
- A. Partial thromboplastin time
- B. Red blood cell (RBC) count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Prothrombin time
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor the effects of heparin, and dosage is adjusted depending on test results. It is a screening test used to detect deficiencies in all plasma clotting factors except factors VII and XIII and platelets. (B) Hemoglobin is the main component of RBCs. Its main function is to carry O2from the lungs to the body tissues and to transport CO2back to the lungs. (C) RBC count is the determination of the number of RBCs found in each cubic millimeter of whole blood. (D) PT is used to monitor the effects of oral anticoagulants, e.g., coumarintype anticoagulants.
NEW QUESTION # 200
A client is being discharged from the hospital today. The discharge teaching for care of her colostomy included which of the following basic principles for protecting the skin around her stoma:
- A. Taping a pouch that is leaking
- B. Cutting the skin barrier 11⁄2 inches larger than the stoma
- C. Using a skin sealant under pouch adhesives
- D. Changing the pouch only when leakage occurs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) When a pouch seal leaks, the pouch should be immediately changed, not taped. Stool held against the skin can quickly result in severe irritation. (B) The skin barrier should be cut only slightly larger than the stoma (one-half inch). (C) The client should be taught to change pouches whenever possible before leakage occurs. (D) When skin sealant is used under the tape, the outermost layer of the epidermis remains intact. When no skin sealant is used, this layer is removed when the tape is removed.
NEW QUESTION # 201
The initial focus when providing nursing care for a child with rheumatic fever during the acute phase of the illness should be to:
- A. Maintain her interest in school
- B. Provide a nutritious diet
- C. Maintain contact with her parents
- D. Provide for physical and psychological rest
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A)
This goal is helpful, but rest is essential during the acute phase. (B) Rest is essential for healing to occur and for pain to be relieved. (C) This goal is important, but rest is essential.
(D)
This goal should be part of the plan of care, but it is not the priority during the acute phase.
NEW QUESTION # 202
A 9-month-old infant visits her pediatrician for a routine visit. A developmental assessment was initiated by the nurse. Which skill would cause the nurse to be concerned about the infant's developmental progression?
- A. She pulls herself to her feet with help.
- B. She creeps and crawls.
- C. She sits briefly alone with assistance.
- D. She stands while holding onto furniture.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The 9-month-old infant can sit alone for long periods. By the age of 6 months, many infants can pull themselves to a sitting position. (B, C, D) This skill represents normal development.
NEW QUESTION # 203
A 66-year-old female client has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day for 20 years. Her arterial blood gases on room air are as follows: pH 7.35; PO2 70 mm Hg; PCO2 55 mm Hg; HCO3 32 mEq/L. These blood gases reflect:
- A. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
- B. Compensated respiratory acidosis
- C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
- D. Compensated metabolic acidosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) In compensated metabolic acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is decreased, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client's primary alteration is an inability to remove excess acid via the kidneys. The lungs compensate by hyperventilating and decreasing PCO2. (B) In compensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is elevated, and the HCO3level is elevated. The client's primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs, so over time, the kidneys increase reabsorption of HCO3to buffer the CO2. (C) In compensated respiratory alkalosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is decreased, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client's primary alteration is hyperventilation, which decreases PCO2. The client compensates by increasing the excretion of HCO3from the body. (D) In uncompensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is decreased, the PCO2level is increased, and the HCO3level is normal. The client's primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs. The kidneys have not compensated by increasing HCO3reabsorption.
NEW QUESTION # 204
On the third postpartum day, a client complains of extremely tender breasts. On palpation, the nurse notes a very firm, shiny appearance to the breasts and some milk leakage. She is bottle feeding. The nurse should initially recommend to her to:
- A. Take a warm shower and express milk from both breasts until empty
- B. Apply ice packs to the breasts and wear a supportive, well-fitting bra
- C. Take 2 ibuprofen (Motrin) tablets by mouth now because the baby will be returning for feeding in 20 minutes
- D. Allow the infant to breast-feed at the next feeding time to empty the breasts
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Judicious use of analgesics is appropriate with breast engorgement; however, mechanical suppression would be the initial recommendation. (B) Breast-feeding every 11⁄2-3 hours will reduce and/or prevent breast engorgement. Breast-feeding will promote milk production, which will compound the distention and stasis of the venous circulation of engorgement in a bottlefeeding mother. (C) Ice packs reduce milk flow while the snug, supportive bra provides mechanical suppression and decreases pulling on Cooper's ligament. In addition, breast binders or ace bandages may be used for some women. (D) Warmth promotes milk production and may stimulate the let-down reflex. These measures would contribute to the venous congestion of engorgement.
NEW QUESTION # 205
A mother continues to breast-feed her 3-month-old infant. She tells the nurse that over the past 3 days she has not been producing enough milk to satisfy the infant. The nurse advises the mother to do which of the following?
- A. "Provide supplements for the child between breastfeeding so you will have enough milk."
- B. "Wait 4 hours between feedings so that your breasts will fill up."
- C. "Nurse the child more frequently during this growth spurt."
- D. "Start the child on solid food."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Solid foods introduced before 4-6 months of age are not compatible with the abilities of the GI tract and the nutritional needs of the infant. (B) Production of milk is supply and demand. A common growth spurt occurs at
3 months of age, and more frequent nursing will increase the milk supply to satisfy the infant. (C) Supplementation will decrease the infant's appetite and in turn decrease the milk supply. When the infant nurses less often or with less vigor, the amount of milk produced decreases. (D) Rigid feeding schedules lead to a decreased milk supply, whereas frequent nursing signals the mother's body to produce a correspondingly increased amount of milk.
NEW QUESTION # 206
A 4 year old has an imaginary playmate, which concerns the mother. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. "I understand your concern and will assist you with a referral."
- B. "Try not to worry because you will just upset your child."
- C. "Just ignore the behavior and it should disappear by age 8."
- D. "This is appropriate behavior for a preschooler and should not be a concern."
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This is normal for a preschooler, and a referral is not appropriate. (B) Telling a parent not to worry is unhelpful. This response does not address the mother's concern. (C) This response is incorrect. The behavior is normal and will usually disappear by the time the child enters school. (D) This behavior is normal development for a preschooler.
NEW QUESTION # 207
A client has been in labor 10 hours and is becoming very tired. She has dilated to 7 cm and is at 0 station with the fetus in a right occipitoposterior position. She is complaining of severe backache with each contraction.
One comfort measure the nurse can employ is to:
- A. Have her push with each contraction
- B. Place her in knee-chest position during the contraction
- C. Use effleurage during the contraction
- D. Apply strong sacral pressure during the contraction
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) This measure is inappropriate. The knee-chest position is employed to take pressure off the cord. (B) Effleurage is a comfort measure but not the one that will contribute most to the relief of backache caused by a posterior position. (C) Sacral pressure will counteract the pressure created by the position of the fetal head. (D) The client is not completely dilated. Pushing is contraindicated until the second stage of labor.
NEW QUESTION # 208
A dose of theophylline may need to be altered if a client with COPD:
- A. Operates machinery
- B. Is concurrently on cimetidine for ulcers
- C. Has a history of arthritis
- D. Is allergic to morphine
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The effects of morphine or an allergic response to the drug will not affect theophylline clearance. (B) Xanthines are used cautiously in clients with severe cardiac disease, liver disease, cor pulmonale, hypertension, or hyperthyroidism. Arthritis does not influence the dosage of theophylline. (C) Theophylline does not cause sedation or drowsiness. Conversely, its side effects may be exhibited by central nervous system stimulation. (D) Cimetidine decreases theophylline clearance from the system and increases theophylline levels in the blood, thus increasing the risk of toxicity.
NEW QUESTION # 209
When a client with pancreatitis is discharged, the nurse needs to teach him how to prevent another occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following statements would indicate he has an understanding of his disease?
- A. "I will not eat any raw or uncooked vegetables."
- B. "I will look into attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings."
- C. "I will limit my alcohol to one cocktail per day."
- D. "I will report any changes in bowel movements to my doctor."
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A)
Raw or uncooked vegetables are all right to eat postdischarge. (B) This client must avoid any alcohol intake. (C) The client displays awareness of the need to avoid alcohol.
(D)
This action would be pertinent only if fatty stools associated with chronic hepatitis were the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 210
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NCLEX-RN exam is computerized and consists of multiple-choice questions that cover a wide range of nursing topics including patient care, health promotion, pharmacology, and ethical and legal issues in nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to assess the candidate's ability to apply critical thinking and clinical judgment to real-life nursing scenarios while also testing their knowledge of nursing theory and practice.
Get to know more about the importance of the exam
Nursing programs require students to pass the NCLEX-RN exam before graduation. This is because most states only allow one or two years of clinical experience before licensing as a registered nurse. In order to be eligible to take the NCLEX-RN exam, applicants must have graduated from an approved nursing program. The scope of the exam is based on what you learned in nursing school. Exam braindumps has a study guide. Each part is designed to test the knowledge required for each of the major categories. Brainfunctions that make a nurse a good practitioner are also tested. Visit killexams are the best resource to help students prepare for the NCLEX-RN® exam. NCLEX-RN Dumps provide study guides, question explanations, and practice exams. These are excellent for students who are preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam. It's important to know what to expect on the exam.
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